MDCAT CRASH TEST NO. 1
- Which of these substances face most difficulty in passing through plasma membrane?A) Lipid particles B) Ionic particles C) Glucose D) Gases
2. always pass passively through cell membrane:
A) Gases B) Larger particles C) Food particles D) Ionic substances
3. Protein synthesis occurs at all sites in a eukaryotic cell except
A) Mitochondria C) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
B) Chloroplast D) Golgi bodies
4. Which of the fallowing’s is not a part of plasma membrane?
A) Cholesterol B) Phospholipids C) Peptidoglycan D) Glycoproteins
5. In case of plant cells, nucleus is pushed towards periphery due to the presence of:
(A) Mitochondria B) Vacuole C) Golgi bodies D) Endoplasmic reticulum
6. Charged pores in a cell membrane are formed by:
(A) Lipid bilayer B) Extrinsic proteins C) Integral proteins D) Phospholipids
7. Pancreatic enzymes are finally processed and secreted by:
(A) Ribosomes B) Mitochondria C) Endoplasmic reticulum D) Golgi apparatus
8. Generally, eukaryotic cells have
(A) One nucleus B) Two nuclei C) No nucleus D) Many nuclei
9. In any cell, ribosomes can exist in all of the following forms except:
(A) Dispersed in cytoplasm C) Attached with RER
(B) Attached with cell membrane D) Attached with Golgi bodies
10. Which of these metabolic processes do not occur in mitochondria?
(A) Fatty acid metabolism C) Glucose breakdown
(B) Krebs cycle D) Aerobic Respiration
11. Which of the following does not contain tubulin protein?
(A) Ribosomes B) Centrioles C) Centrosome D) Basal bodies
12. This is not true regarding cytoplasm of bacterial cell:
(A) Transcription is carried out in it C) It contains single stranded circular DNA
(B) It lacks membranous organelles D) It does not show cyclosis
13. Nucleus is involved directly in all of the fallowing’s except:
(A) Replication B) Transcription C) Translation D) Ribosome formation
14. Cell organelle responsible for turgor movement in plants is:
(A) Nucleus B) Cell wall C) Cytoplasm D) Vacuole
15. Lysosomes are believed to originate from:
(A) SER B) Golgi complex C) Mitochondria D) Food vacuole
16. The outer nuclear membrane is connected with:
(A) Ribosomes B) Endoplasmic reticulum C) Golgi bodies D) Extracellular fibers
17. It is responsible for movement of chromosomes during anaphase of mitosis:
(A) Actin B) Myosin C) Tubulin D) Histone
18. Regions of nucleolus that has DNA is:
(A) Peripheral granular area C) Central fibril area
(B) Peripheral fibril area D) Central granular area
19. It is not a function of SER:
(A) Storage of Ca+2 C) Mechanical support
(B) Protein synthesis D) Detoxification
20. The entire cell wall of prokaryotic cell is formed of sugars and amino acids, it is also known as
(A) Peptidoglycan B) Murein C) Sacculus D) All
21. Mitochondria is power house of the cell; it generates ATPs from:
(A) Glucose B) ADP C) Acetyl Co-A D) Amino acids
22. Which of the following features is not shared by prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?
(A) Ribosome (B) Cytoplasm (C) Cell membrane (D) Nuclear membrane
23. Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum helps to:
(A) Synthesize proteins (B) Detoxify the harmful drugs
(C) Prepare food (D) Decompose proteins
24. Which of the following statement is wrong?
A) Fungi have mitochondria
B) Mitochondria have DNA and ribosomes (80S)
C) Mitochondrial ribosomes resemble more to eukaryotic ribosomes
D) Both B & C
25. Which of the following is not a characteristic of prokaryotes?
(A) Linear DNA (B) Cell membrane (C) Endoplasmic reticulum (D) both a & c
26. Oxidative metabolism is carried out of mitochondria:
(A) In the intermembrane space (B) On the surface of the inner membrane
(C) In the inside of the outer membrane (D) in the matrix
27. The complex of sugar polymers and proteins which are patchily distributed on the plasma membranes of animal cells is called:
(A) Cellulose (B)Chitin (C) Glyocalyx (D) Cytoskeleton
28. According to the fluid mosaic model of cell membranes:
A)The most common type of molecules in the membrane are proteins
B) Basic membrane structure results horn how the proteins interact with water
(C) The membrane is a highly mobile mixture of phospholipids and proteins
(D) The unique properties of cell types are determined by their phospholipids
29. Each cell of frog contains autosomes:
(A) 18 (B)24 (C)26 (D) 48
30. The free ribosome’s of the mitochondria are present in its
(A) Mitochondrial matrix (B) inter-membrane space
(C) On the outer-membrane (D) On the cristae of the inner membrane
31. To enter or leave a cell, substances must pass through
(A) The plasma membrane (B) A microtubule
(C) The Golgi apparatus (D) A ribosome
32. Bacterial cell are prokaryotic; in comparison to a typical eukaryotic cell they would
(A) Lack a plasma membrane (B) Have a smaller nucleus
(C) Be smaller (D) Have a greater variety of organelle
33. Two functions of rough endoplasmic reticulum are to
(A) Detoxify and transport drugs (B) Modify and activate hormones
(C) Synthesize and transport proteins (D) Join with and hydrolyze food vacuoles
34. In which of the following is the greatest amount of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) found?
(A) Nucleus (B) Ribosome (C) Nucleolus (D) Nuclear envelope
35. The space between the outer and inner mitochondrial membranes is
A) Per mitochondrial space (C) Intermembrane space
B) Periplasmic space (D) Both b & c
36. It is not a difference of plant cell with animal cell:
A) Plant cell has large vacuole while animal cell has small vacuoles
B) Plant cells contain glyoxysomes while absent in animal cells
C) Plant cell offers more barriers to movement of substances than animal cell
D) Plant cell forms spindle and asters while animal cell forms only spindles
37. This is not always true regarding cytoplasm of bacterial cell:
A) Its peripheral parts are gel like C) It contains single circular DNA
B) It lacks membranous organelles D) It does not show cyclosis
38. Cell is considered as a unit of life in:
A) All prokaryotes B) All eukaryotes C) All living organisms D) All bacteria
39. The outer convex surface of Golgi apparatus is formed by the budding of:
A) Endoplasmic reticulum C) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
B) Rough endoplasmic reticulum D) Lysosomes
40. All can be explained on the basis of cell theory except:
A) HIV B) Yeast C) Nostoc D) Neuron
41. Technically, autophagosome are also known as:
A) Primary lysosomes C) secondary lysosomes
B) Tertiary lysosomes D) Complex lysosomes
42. In unit membrane model, the region of lipid bilayer attached to globular protein is:
A) Hydrophobic B) Non-polar C) Hydrophilic D) Hyper phobic
43. Which of the following function is not performed by cell membrane?
A) it helps in nervous co-ordination
C) It prevents cell from osmotic lysis
B) It helps in chemical co-ordination
44. Select the storage disease which can be seen in the absence of lipase?
A) Sickle cell anemia C) Glycogenosis type II
B) Taysach disease D) Both b and c
45. Opening and closing of stomata is controlled by?
A) Cell wall B) Cell membrane C) Vacuole D) Cytoskeleton
46. Select the cell which show phagocytosis?
A) basophil B) eosinophil C) neutrophils D) all of these
47. Taking in water through cell membrane is?
A) Phagocytosis C) Endocytosis
B) Pinocytosis D) Osmosis
48. According to fluid mosaic model, extrinsic proteins are attached with which part of lipids bilayer?
A) Hydrophobic head C) Hydrophobic tail
B) Hydrophilic head D) Hydrophilic tail
49. Blebs from tips of smooth endoplasmic reticulum fuse with Golgi apparatus cisternae at
A) Golgi vesicles B) Forming face C) Maturing face D) Finalizing stage
50. Phragmoplasts are formed by
A) ER C) Mitochondria
B) Golgi bodies D) Nucleus
51. Following cell organelles are derived from special assemblies of microtubules EXCEPT:
A) Cilia and flagella B) Centrioles C) Basal bodies D) Chromatin fibers
52. Cisternae are the membranes found in:
A) Endoplasmic reticulum C) Golgi apparatus
B) Lysosomes D) All A,B,C
53. Mitochondria contains enzymes for all of the following processes except:
A) Glycolysis C) Translation
B) Respiratory chain D) Fatty acid metabolism
54. Structure of a centriole is correctly represented by:
A) Nine tubules C) Double central and nine peripheral fibrils
B) Nine microtubule triplets D) Nine peripheral double fibrils
55. A human cheek cell and a spongy mesophyll cell from a leaf are examined under a microscope. The structures observed common in both are:
A) Cell membrane, nucleus and cytoplasm
B) Cytoplasm, cell wall and cell membrane
C) Cell wall, cell membrane and nucleus
D) Nucleus, cytoplasm and cell wall
56. What is the similarity between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell?
A) Composition of flagella C) Composition of cell wall
B) Composition of cell membrane D) composition of ribosomes
57. A process in which energy of system is not used:
A) Active transport C) Gated transport
B) Endocytosis D) Pumping transport
58. The correct statement is?
A) All prokaryotic cells are diploid C) All prokaryotic cells are triploid
B) All prokaryotic cells are haploid D) All prokaryotic cells can be haploid or diploid
59. Which of the following is characteristic of phospholipids of plasma membrane
A) one non polar head and two polar tails C) Two non – polar head and two polar tails
B) one polar head and two non – polar tails D) Two polar head and one non – polar tails
60. True mitochodria are absent in:
(A) Algal cell (B) Fungal cell (C) Bacteria cell (D) Animal cell
61. Infolding of inner membrane in mitochondria are called:
(A) Cisternae (B) Thyllakoid (C) F1-particles (D) Cristae
62. Resolution power of a electron microscope is:
(A) 2.0 µm (B) 2-4 Angstrom (C) 1.0 mm (D) 24 Angstrom
63. The human naked eye can diferentiate between two points, which are at least apart.
(A) 2.0 µm (B) 2-4 Angstrom (C) 1.0 mm (D) 24 Angstrom
64. Which of the following is not present in mitochondria?
(A) Enzymes (B) Co-enzymes (C)Ribosomes (D) Linear DNA
65. On the inner surface the inner membrane of mitochondria cristae small knob-like structures are present. These are called
A) Oxysomes B) Elementary particles C) F1-particles D)All of these
66. In electron microscope, the source of illumination is a beam of
A) Protons B) Neutrons C) Electrons D) Photons
67. Which of the following criteria does not relate to facilitated transport?
A) Uphill transport C) Requirement of special membrane proteins
B) High selectivity D) Transport saturation
68. Specific proteins responsible for the flow of materials and information into the cell are called:
A) Membrane receptors B) Integral proteins C) Carrier proteins D) None of these
69. Which one of the following is not a constituent of cell membrane?
A) Glycolipids B) Phospholipids C) Proline D) Cholesterol
70. Transport proteins are required for
A) Diffusion C) Osmosis
B) Facilitated transport D) Facilitated transport and active transport
71. Which statement is not true of membrane carbohydrates?
A) Most are bound to proteins
B) Carbohydrates are added to proteins in the Golgi apparatus
C) Some are bound to lipids
D) They show little diversity
72. Which statement is not true of channels in membranes?
A) The channels are pores in the membrane
B) The channels are proteins
C) All ions pass through the same kind of channel
D) Some channels are gated
73. Cell membrane carbohydrates participate in
A) Transporting substances across the membrane B) Cell to cell recognition
C) Attaching the membrane to cytoskeleton D) Cell Adhesion
74. Golgi apparatus is absent in
A) Blue-green alga B) Liver cells C) Red blood cells D) Higher plants
75. In which one of the following would you expect to find glyoxysomes?
A) Endosperm of wheat C) Endosperm of castor
B) Palisade cells in leaf D) Root hairs
1. Consider the reaction; 3Fe + 4H2O ® Fe3O4 + 4H2. Find the weight of Iron which will be converted into its oxide by the action of 36g steam.
A) 56 g B) 52 g C) 46 g D) 84 g
2. The no. of gram molecules of oxygen in 6.02×1023 CO Molecules are:
A) 1 gm molecule C) 0.5 gm molecules
B) 2 gm molecules D) 5 gm molecules
3. A pure substance X has molarity 55.56 M and assumed to be very weak electrolyte. Which one may be represent as X .
A) sulphuric acid B) water C) ethanol D) Potassium Hydroxide
4. 2g of O2 at RTP (room temperature and pressure) occupies. (L = Litre)
A) 4 L B) 2.8 L C) 11.4 L D) 3.2 L
5. 15 g of a gas occupies 11.2 dm3 at STP. The gas is
A) CO B) C2H6 C) CO2 D) N2O
6. The amount of NH3 formed by the complete reaction of 1 dm3 of N2 and 1 dm3 of H2 is;
A) 2 dm3 B) 1 dm3 C) 0.66 dm3 D) 1.33 dm3
7. Number of molecules in 4.25 g of NH3 is approximately
A) 6 x 10^23 B) 3 x 10^23 C) 1.5 x 10^23 D) 0.5 x 10^23
8. The decomposition of a certain mass of CaCO3 gave 22.414 dm3 of CO2 gas at STP. The mass of KOH required to completely neutralize the gas is; (KOH + CO2 ® KHCO3)
A) 56 g B) 28 g C) 42 g D) 20 g
9. 90 grams of glucose are dissolved in water to make 250cm3 of its solution, its molarity is:
A) 2 B) 5 C) 0.1 D) 1
10. Increasing the temperature of an aqueous solution will cause
A) decrease in molarity C) decrease in mole fraction
B) decrease in molality D) decrease in % w/w
11. If 9.8g H2SO4 is present in one dm3 of solution, the solution is
A) 1N B) 0.1M C) 0.1m D) 0.5M
12. 54 g of H2O are mixed with 92 g of ethanol. The mole fraction of water is
A) 2 B) 0.3 C) 0.4 D) 0.6
13. The molarity of 20% (w/v) NaOH solution is.
- A) 5 B) 5 C) 2.5 D) 0.25
14. The units of mole fraction when partial pressure of a gas and total pressure of all gases takes into account:
A) torr B) atm C) mmHg D) No units
15. Which is always true for a balanced chemical equation; it contain equal;
A) Moles of reactants and products C) Mass of reactants and products
B) Moecules of reactants and products D) Volume of reactants and products
16. Consider the reaction, CH4 + H2O ® CO + 3H2. What volume of hydrogen gas can be obtained from 50cm3 of CH4 at STP.
A) 300 cm3 B) 200 cm3 C) 150 cm3 D) 100 cm3
17. Which one of the following pair is not iso – electronic
- CO, N2 B) Na+ , Ne C) K, Ar D) K+ , Ar
18. The volume occupied by 11 g of CO2 at STP is
A) 6 dm3 B) 22.4 dm3 C) 112 cm3 D) 1.12 dm3
19. In a sample of glucose, 3.6 x 1023 atoms of carbon are present. Mass of Glucose sample is;
A) 180 g B) 360 g C) 8 g D) 342 g
20. Which one of the following is molecular formula of hydrocarbon which contain 80% by mass of carbon and 20% by mass of hydrogen?
A) CH4 B) C2H6 C) C3H6 D) C4H8
21. Isotopes of an element differ in
A) arrangement of electrons in an orbit C) electronic configuration
B) Chemical properties D) properties which depend upon mass
22. 20 grams of H2 reacts with 4 moles of O2, The no. of moles of H2O produced are:
A) 4 moles B) 8 moles C) 12 moles D) 16 moles
23. The relative atomic mass of chlorine is 35.5amu. what is the mass of 4 – moles of chlorine gas.
A) 5g B) 71g C) 142g D) 284g
24. Which of the following compound does not have empirical formula CH2O.
A) HCHO B) CH3COOH C) C6H12O6 D) CH3CH2OH
25. 11.2 dm3 of a gas at STP weighs 14 g. The gas could be
A) N2 B) NO2 C) CO2 D) N2O
26. One mole of CH3OCH3 and one mole of C2H5OH have
A) equal no. of molecules C) equal volume at T.P
B) equal no. of atoms D) both A & B
27. By knowing the empirical formula, what other information is also needed to calculate molecular formula of a compound?
A) % age composition B) Atomic ratio
C) Mass of each atom D) Relative molecular mass
28. The mass of 2 moles of electrons is
A) 008 mg B) 0.55 mg C) 1.10 mg D) 0.275 mg
29. Which one of the following contain highest %age of carbon.
A) CH4 B) C2H6 C) CO2 D) CO
30. Which one is not equal to one mole at STP.
A) 414 dm3 of mercury C) 22.414 dm3 of H2
B) 22.414 dm3 of CH4 D) 22.414 dm3 of CO2
1. Watt hour is unit of
A) Electric energy B) Current C) Power D) Voltage
2. The change in velocity of a body is (12.5 ± 0.2)ms-1 in a time (5.0 ± 0.3) sec. Find percentage uncertainty in average value of acceleration.
A) 6% B) 6% C) 9 % D) 1.6%
3. Random errors can be minimized by
A) Taking mean of many observations C) Both A and B
B) reducing zero error in device D) Using instrument of small L.C
4. The heat produce in a circuit depends upon resistivity current and time. If the errors in measuring these quantities are 1%,2% and 1% respectively. The maximum errors in measuring heat
A) 1% B) 2% C) 3% D) 6%
5. One light year is equal to
A) 9.5 × 10^15 cm B) 7.88 × 10^4m C) 9.5 × 1015 m D) 9.5 × 1015 km
6. Which of the following represent the length in FPS and CGS system both
A) foot, decimeter C) decimeter, centimeter
B) meter, kilometer D) foot, centimeter
7. The time dependence of physical quantity P is found to be of the form
P = P0𝑒−𝜶𝑇2 Where ‘t’ is the time and 𝜶 is some constant. Then the constant 𝜶 will
A) be dimensionless
B) have dimensions of T–2
C) have dimensions of P
D) have dimensions of P multiplied by T–2
8. The least count of stop which is 1/5 sec. The time of 20 oscillations of a pendulum is measured to be 25 sec. The minimum percentage error in measurement of time will be:
A) 1% B) 0.8% C) 1.8% D) 8%
9.Which of the given is correct record for the diameter of a wire which is measured with a screw gauge of least count 0.001 cm.
A) 3 cm B) 2.31 cm C) 2.314 cm D) 2.3105 cm
10. In an experiment the length of steel bar is to be measured. For this purpose a student find two devices A and B in Lab. Device A can measure the length with an absolute uncertainty of 0.5 cm while device B can make the same measurement with an absolute uncertainty 0.05 cm. For precise measurement the student should use.
A) Use device A
B) Use both devices A and B and take average value
C) Use device B
D) Use both devices A and B and take minimum value
11. A physical quantity x depends on quantities y and z as follows:
x = Ay + B tan Cz, where A, B and C are constants. Which of the following do not have the same units?
A) x and B B) y and B / A C) x and A D) C and z –1
12. pressure of 108 dynes/cm2 is equivalent to
A) 105 N/m2 B) 109 N/m2 C) 107 N/m2 D) 1011 N/m2
13. An accurate measurement is the one which has ______ fractional error.
- negative B) highest C) less D) positive
14. Base units are those which
A) Cannot split further C) Use to define other units
B) Cannot define in term of other D) All are correct
15. Which one is the base SI unit
A) volt B) kilo meter C) kilogram D) Both kilometer and kilogram
16. A measurement which on repetition gives same or nearly same result is called
A) accurate measurement C) precise measurement
B) average measurement D) estimated measurement
17. The pressure on a square plate is measured by measuring the force on the plate and the length of the sides of the plate. If the maximum error in the measurement of force and length are respectively 4% and 2%, The maximum error in the measurement of pressure is
(A) 1% (B) 2% (C) 6% (D) 8%
18. 100 picometer = ……………
(A)10^–8 cm (B) 10^–7 m (C) 10×10^–6 𝜇m (D) 10×10^–8 𝜇m
19. Which product-pair of metric prefixes has the least magnitude?
A) tera × mega (B) nano × kilo (C) micro × giga (D) milli × tera
20. If q, V and T represents charge, potential and time period respectively then their product represents
A) Dielectric constant (B) Stefan’s constant
C) Plank’s constant (D) Coulomb’s constant
21. Which of the following is not the unit of energy?
A) watt-hour (B) electron volt (C) N m (D) kg m2 s-2
22. 1 g =…………… amu
(A) 6.02×10^23 (B) 6.02 ×10^–23 (C) 1.66×10^–27 (D) 1.66 ×10^27
23. A thermometer can be read to an accuracy of + 0.5 °C. This thermometer is used to measure a temperature rise from 40 °C to 100 °C. What is the percentage uncertainty in the measurement of the temperature rise?
A) 5 % B) 0.8 % C) 1.3 % D) 1.7%
24. The length of a rod is (10.15 + 0.06) cm what is the length of two such rods ?
A) (20.30 +06) cm B) (20.30+1.6) cm
C) (10.30 +12) cm D) (20.30 +0.12) cm
25. Of the following readings of length which is more precise
(A) 430m (B) 430.55m (C) 430.5m (D) 430.565m
26. If the percentage uncertainty in calculating a length of 5m is 2% the absolute uncertainty is
(A) 0.1 (B) 0.6 (C) 0.2 (D) 1
27. Which of the following is not the unit of charger?
A) A s (B) J V^-1 (C) C (D) None of these
28. Radian is a unit of angular displacement which can also be measured in degrees. How many degrees are equal to one radian?
(A) π/180 (B) 180/π (C) 2π/180 (D) π/57.3
29. Which of the following definitions is correct and uses only quantities rather than units?
A) Charge is ampere
B) electric field intensity is change in potential per unit length
C) Pressure is force per meter
D) Speed is distance travelled per
30. The unit of electric field is newton/coulomb. Its other equivalent term is potential gradient. What will be its unit?
A) Vm B) Vm^2 C) Vm^–2 D) Vm^–1
31. Which of the following quantities can be written as kg m2A–2 s–3 in S.I. units ?
A) resistance B) inductance C) capacitance D) magnetic flux
32. The diameter of atom is of the order of
- A) 10^–10 m B) 10^–14m C) 10^–19 m D) 10^–15 m
33. is needed for the experimental verification of various theories.
A) Unit (B) Instrument (C) Symbol (D) Measurement
34. The reference standard used for the measurement of a physical quantity is called .
A) standard quantity (B) dimension (C) constant (D) unit
35. Instrumental error can be minimised by
A) taking large number of readings.
B) using different accurate instrument for the same reading.
C) adjusting zero of the
D) maintaining the temperature of the
36. Thickness of the paper measured by micrometer screw gauge of least count 0.01 mm is 1.03 mm, the percentage error in the measurement of thickness of paper is
(A) 1.1% (B) 1% (C) 0.97% (D) 0.8%
37. Choose the INCORRECT statement out of the following.
A) Every measurement by any measuring instrument has some
B) Every calculated physical quantity that is based on measured values has some
C) A measurement can have more accuracy but less precision and vice versa.
D) The percentage error is different from relative error
38. Which of the following system of units is not based on units of mass, length and time alone?
A) S.I (B) M.K.S (C) F.P.S (D) C.G.S
Choose the correct word words to complete each sentence.
1. He to the waiter to bring more food as he was still ravenous.
A) dismayed B) hemmed C) beckoned D) elevated
2. After she the lamb chops in the broiler, she sat down to open the package.
A) Put B) Was putting C) Puts D) Had put
3. Opening the door, she picked up the package and carried it into the kitchen _ it on the table.
A) Leaving B) Left C) Leaves D) Was leaving
4. An number of women died from the disease.
A) appalling B) confounded C) appalled D) brimming
In each of the following questions, four alternative sentences are given. Choose the CORRECT one and fill the circle corresponding to that letter in the MCQ Response Form.
A) All we guarantees is that you don’t know them and of course that you wouldn’t have to watch them
B) All we guarantee is that you doesn’t know them and of course that you wouldn’t have to watch them die.
C) All we guarantee is that you don’t know them and of course that you wouldn’t have to watch them die.
D) All we guarantee are that you don’t know them and of course that you wouldn’t have to watch them die.
A) Just a few steps in front of him a fox squirrel crossed the path and ran up a hickory
B) Just few steps in front of him a fox squirrel crossed the path and ran on a hickory
C) Just a few steps in front of him a fox squirrel crossed the path and ran on a hickory
D) Just few steps in front of him a fox squirrel crossed the path and ran up a hickory
A) This antibiotic destroys red corpuscles in the blood causes pernicious
B) This antibiotic destroy red corpuscles in the blood causes pernicious
C) This antibiotic destroys red corpuscles in the blood cause pernicious
D) These antibiotics destroy red corpuscles in the blood causes pernicious
A) She struggled on her feet and walked in the kitchen
B) She struggled to her feet and walked in the kitchen
C) She struggled on her feet and walked into the kitchen numbly.
D) She struggled to her feet and walked into the kitchen
A) He put the wire guard in front of the fire, turned out the gas, and carried a detective novel to
B) He put the wire guard in front of the fire, turned out the gas, and carried a detective novel on
C) He put the wire guard in front of the fire, turned out the gas, and carried a detective novel in
D) He put the wire guard in front of the fire, turned off the gas, and carried a detective novel to
A) And we raised more than a barrel of corn with the
B) And we raised more than a barrel of corn of the shock.
C) And we raised more than a barrel of corn to the shock
D) And we raised more than a barrel of corn for the shock.
A) Big Hall full of lusty barbarians ready to pounce on him as their legitimate
B) Big Hall full of lusty barbarians ready to pounce over him as their legitimate
C) Big Hall full of lusty barbarians ready to pounce on him as their legitimate
D) Big Hall full of lusty barbarians ready to pounce on him as its legitimate
A) He said as he let the dirt run between his fingers.
B) He said as he let the dirt ran among his fingers
C) He said as he let the dirt ran between his fingers
D) He said as he let the dirt run among his fingers
In each of the following questions, four alternative meanings of a word are given. You have to select the NEAREST CORRECT MEANING of the given word and fill the appropriate Circle on the MCQ Response Form.
A) trepidation B) Adornment C) Copious D) Estimation
A) appealing B) atrociously C) astoundingly D) ostensibly
A) consummate B) mitigated C) admonishing D) perceiving
A) tiny B) squeezed C) expensive D) expansive
A) demure B) bold C) confident D) confidant