MDCAT Practice Test 2022|Test No 19

MDCAT preparation 2022|NMDCAT Practice Tests 2022|NMDCAT 2022

NMDCAT Practice Tests 2022

NMDCAT 2022 Practice Tests are being uploaded to help the students in the evaluation of entry Test Preparations. These practice MCQs are selected from PMC Practice Test 2021. Attempt the following MCQs posted by Expert MDCAT.

Here is the Test No #19 (T8) of NMDCAT Practice Tests 2022

1)One similarity between annelids and arthropods:

a) Closed circulatory system.

b) Nitrogenous waste product is uric acid.

c) Ventral nerve cord.

d) None of the above.

2) Photosystems are located in ____.

a) stroma

b) Chloroplast envelope

c) Thylakoid membranes

c) The intergrana

3) Which of the following plays the major role in providing support to young herbaceous parts of the plant?

a) higher turgor pressure

b) cortex and pith with higher turgor pressure

c) Collenchyma cells

d) all of these

4) Monosynaptic refers to the presence of how many chemical synapse/s?

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3         d) 4

5) The affect of genetic drift increases as the population size?

a) increases b) decreased

c) remains same d) none of these

6) in mammals that are seasonal breeders, females are receptive only once a year. This is known as

a) follicular cycle

b) estrous cycle

c) luteal cycle

d) menstrual cycle

7) Ribose is an example of which of the following?

a) Trioses b) Pentoses

c) Tetroses d) Hexoses

8) The number of spermatids produced from primary spermatocytes is?

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3         d) 4

9) Where does the bacteriophage replicate?

a) Human b) Animal

c) Bacteria d) Horse

10) Which of the following structure provides greater pathogenicity to the bacteria?

a) slime b) cell wall

c) cell membrane d) capsule

11) The ability to pass on genes is defined as which of the following?

a) differential reproduction

b) evolution

c) natural selection

d) fitness

12) in mixed inhibition, the allosteric affect effects

a) shape of substrate

b) shape of inhibitor

c) shape of enzyme

d) none of these

13) Which one is not an energy releasing process?

a) Glycolysis b) Photosynthesis

c) Respiration d) Krebs Cycle

14) The spinal cord acts as a link between body parts and —

a) brain b) skull

c) heart d) lungs

15) Which one of the following is most likely to occur in a boy during puberty?

a) He produces eggs

b) His shoulders broaden.

c) The colour of his eyes change.

d) None of these

16) The set of all genes in any population is termed as?

a) population pool

b) species pool

c) Gene pool

d) all of these

17)  Coelom is lined by which of the following?

a) Parietal mesoderm

b) Visceral mesoderm

c) Mesoderm

d) both a and b

18) The part of chloroplast where C02 is fixed to manufacture sugar is?

a) stroma b) grana

c) thylakoid d) outer membrane

19) Which of the light is mainly absorbed by the plants?

a) Orange b) Red

c) Green d) Both A and B

20) Smooth muscles, cardiac muscles and organs are regulated by which of the following?

a) Central nervous system

b) Parasympathetic nervous system

c) Sympathetic nervous system

d) Autonomic system

21) According to lvanovski what are soluble Irving germs

a) Bacteria b) Viruses

c) Viruses d) Both A and B

22) Cortisol brings about an increase in blood glucose level mainly by its production from protein and by?

a) glucagon b) estrogen

c) insulin d) progesterone

23) What is the shape of the TMV Virus?

a) rod b) spherical

c) tadpole d) helical

24) When was the agent causing AIDs discovered?

a) 1994 b) 1984

c) 1950 d) 1920

25)  Which of the following statements explains why viruses are only able to multiply in living cells?

a) Their binary fission is controlled by host cell genes

b) Virus do not possess the necessary components for self-replication

c) DNA is only able to replicate inside living cells

d) They have only enough genetic information for DNA replication

26) The body of which of the following organism is globular?

a) cake urchin b) sea urchin

c) sea cucumber d) brittle star

27) If we add more substrate to already occurring enzymatic reaction and it has no affect on the rate of reaction, the process is called?

a) denaturation b) composition

c) inhibition d) saturation

28) The outer body wall of sponges is made up of which cells?

a) Choanocytes b) Pinacocytes

c) Mesenchymal cells d) Cnidocytes

29) How does inbreeding negatively impact a population?

a) the frequency of alleles does not change within the population.

b) it reduces the number heterozygous individuals, preventing beneficial alleles from being efficiently selected for.

c) increases the number of homozygous individuals, allowing potentially harmful recessive alleles to express themselves more frequently.

d) all of these

30) Myoglobin protein present in muscles of human body is a___ protein

a) globular protein

b) plated protein

c) tertiary protein

d) quatemary protein

31) Vertebrates are evolutionarily adapted to terrestrial life. Which one of the following adaptations is LEAST likely to contribute to this land-based predominance?

a) Internal fertilization

b) impermeable outer skin

c) Development of legs

d) Short loops of Henle

32) Which of the following characters of pea plant is dominant?

a) Yellow pods b) White flowers

c) Wrinkled seeds d) Axial flowers

33) Which of the following is a unique characteristic of prokaryotic cells?

a) Lack of a cytoplast

b) Presence of a cell wall

c) inability to create proton gradients

d) mRNA translation simultaneous to transcription

34)Aman with type AB blood marries a woman with type A blood. Which of the following blood types might their sons inherit?

a) Type A or type O

b) Type B or type 0

c) Type AB only

d) Type A, type B, or type AB

35) in the peripheral nervous system, the nerves that arise from spinal cord and brain are called?

a) cranial nerves b) Spinal nerves

c) frontal nerves d) both a and b

36) Haemophilia B is due to abnormality of factor?

a) VIll b) X c) IX       d) XI

37) Which of the following organelle is involved in the release of oxygen?

a) mitochondria b) chloroplast

c) glyoxysome d) both a and b

38) Name the first part of small intestine.

a) Duodenum b) Jejunum

c) Ileum d) Both A and B

39) External male genitalia are:

a) a pair of testes

b) seminepherous tubules

c) male copulatory organ

d) Both A and C

40) The flow of lymph is always towards —

a) pancreatic duct

b) bile duct

c) thoracic duct

d) parotid duct

42) What is the coenzyme that facilitates the oxidation of fumarate?

a) FAD b) PADH2 c) NAD  d) NADPH

43) What is the first step in the replication of bacteriophage?

a) replication b) penetration

c) attachment d) injection

44) The process which requires energy:

a) Diffusion b) Facilitated diffusion

c) osmosis d) active transport

45) The largest organelle in a mature living plant cell is?

a) chloroplast b) nucleus

c) central vacuole d) mitochondria

46) The total gestation period (pregnancy) is usually about:

a) 28 days b) 250 days

c) 280 days d) 300 days

47) The muscle contraction depends on:

a) Nerve impulse b) energy

c) calcium d) All of these

48) What is the human breathing rate during hard physical work?

a) 10 to 15 times per minute

b) 10 to 20 times per minute

c) 80 to 120 times per minute

d) 30-40 times per minute

49) During aristotle time, it was thought that

a) organisms ranged from simple to complex

b) one type of organism give rise to another type of organism

c) both a &b

d) all living things specially created by nature

50) The reversible inhibitors usually constitute which of the following?

a) No Linkage with enzyme

b) Strong linkage with enzyme

c) medium linkage

d) Weak linkage with enzyme

51) Which of the following genetic diseases is caused by mutations in a membrane protein?

a) Alzheimer’s disease

b) Parkinson’s disease

c) Anemia

d) Hemolytic anemia

52) The experiment that simulated conditions thought to be present on the early earth

a) Hershey Chase experiment

b) Geiger Marsden experiment

c) Schiehallion experiment

d) Miller—-Urey experiment

53) Metacarpophalangeal joints are examples of:

a) Saddle joint b) Condyloid joint

c) Ball and socket joint d) Hinge joint

54) Where does energy production take place in bacteria that can perform aerobic metabolism?

a) Nucleus b) inclusion Bodies

c) Inclusion Bodies d) Mitochondria

55) Which of these functions will be affected if the medulla oblongata is damaged?

a) Thermoregulation b) Vision

c) Memory

d) Tactile sensation-response when pricked with a needle

56) When a female ovulates, in what phase of division is the oocyte?

a) Anaphase I b) Prophase

c) Metaphase I d) Metaphase II

57) Which molecule passes the mitochondrial membrane to begin the krebs cycle?

a) ATP b) ADP

c) NADH d) Acetyl coA

58) Notochord occurs throughout life and all through the length of the body in which of the following?

a) Hemichordata b) Urochordata

c) Vertebrata d) Cephalochordata

59) All of the following statements are true regarding the attachment or adsorption of the virion to the host cell EXCEPT that:

a) for naked virions, the surface capsid proteins are responsible for binding to a specific cell receptor.

b) for enveloped viruses, the spikes are responsible for binding to a specific cell receptor.

c) cell lacking a receptor for a specific virus is not infected by that virus.

d) All of the above

60) For attachment, rabies virus binds to a

a) complement receptor

b) integrin ICAM-1

c) acetyicholin

d) epidermal growth factor

61) The stomata are dosed at which of the following temperature? (in centigrade)

a) 45 b) 35 c) 15       d) 25

62) Which of the following is NOT a class of enzyme?

a) ligase b) hydrolyse

c) isomerase d) Pytimidine complex

63) The end product of an enzymatic reaction inhibits formation of product in an earlier step. This type of enzymatic regulation is known as ?

a) allosteric regulation

b) negative regulation

c) metabolic pathway loop

d) feedback inhibition

64) The auditory relay center is found in:

a) Corpus callosum

b) Hindbrain

c) Forebrain

d) Midbrain

65) Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

a) Eggs in the ovaries ripen when they meet a sperm

b) Girls are bom with thousands of eggs in their ovaries.

c) Hormones control the release of the egg from the ovary.

d) One egg is released from the ovary about every month.

66) Ethene is prepared from alcohol by ____?

a) Decomposition b) Dehydration

c) Dehydroxylation d) Dehalogenation

67) Which type of organic compounds are present in natural gas?

a) High molecular mass

b) Low molecular mass

c) Low boiling point

d) Both b and c

68) Aldehydes are present in natural oils that are used as?

a) High molecular mass

b) Low molecular mass

c) Low boiling point

d) Both a and b

68) Aldehydes are present in natural oils that are used as?

a) Flavours b) Fragrances

c) Both a and b d) Sugars

69) Transition elements for complexes because ___?

a) They have empty d orbitals

b) They show variable oxidation states

c) Both a and b

d) They have strong bonding

70) The shielding effect from left to right in a period

a) decreases b) increases

c) remains same d) no change

71) Under the microscope, the bacteria appear a bluish-purple color. Which class of bacteria are on the slide?

a) gram positive b) gram negative

c) both a and b d) none of these

72) Extreme change in pH results in which of the following?

a) Change in ionization of amino acids at the active site of the enzyme

b) Change in the ionization of the substrate

c) increase in the reaction rate

d) Denaturation of the enzyme

73) Photocell is similar to

a) photoelectric effect

b) compton effect

c) photoluminescence

d) none of these

74) Which of the following is correct about IUPAC naming of carboxylic acid?

a) in the parent name COOH position is not mentioned

b) COOH is written as substituent and position is mentioned

c) COOH is given 1st position in all carboxylic acid

d) Both a and c

75) The reactions that needs energy are called as__?

a) Endothermic reactions

b) Exothermic reactions

c) Exergonic reactions

d) Heat releasing reactions

76) SN1 reaction is a ___

a) Multistep reaction

b) Two step reaction

c) Concerted reactions

d) 3 step reaction

77) Enzymes that catalyze hydrolysis:

a) Oxidoreductase b) Hydrolases

c) Ligases d) Transferases

78) The intermolecular forces are very weak in

a) solids b) liquids

c) gases d) all of these

79) The molar volume of CO2 is maximum at

a) 273 C & 2 atm b) c and 1 atm

c) STP d) 127 C & 1 atm

80) Which of the following reaction does acetylene give due to its acidic hydrogens?

a) Ozonolysis b) Hydronylation

c) Acetylide formation d) Kolbe’s electrolysis

81) CI-CI Bond distance is is 5.63 A, While Na-Ci bond distance is

a) Half of 5.63 b) double to 5.63

c) 5.63 d) None of these

82) Which one is for evaporation

a) surface phenomena

b) cause cooling

c) exothermic

d) continuous

83) Carboxylic acids are formed by the hydrolysis of

a) Ester, Nitriles b) Nitriles, amines

c) Alkenes,Alkynes d) Esters, Alcohols

84) Aldehydes are converted into when undergoes Wolff Kishner reduction?

a) Alkenes b) Alkanes

c) Alkynes d) Alcohols

85) The order of reaction for which half-life is inversely proportional to the concentration of reaction is

a) second order b) Zero Order

c) First Order d) Third Order

86) For the identification of isotopes of elements having solid state

a) Aston spectrometer

b) dempster’s mass spectrometer

c) Soddy mass spectrometer

d) atomic spectrometer

87) Human body contains ____ kind of proteins ?

a) 60000

b) Almost 10000

c) 5000

d) 200

88) Which molar heat has higher AH value?

a) Heat of fusion

b) Heat of vapourization

c) Heat of sublimation

d) Heat of evaporation

89) Which of the following is a poor leaving group in nucleophilic substitution reactions?

a) CIb) Brc) I–              d) OH

90) Regular coiling & twisting of polypeptide chain caused by H-bonding in between NH & CO occurs in

a) Primary structure

b) Secondary structure

c) Tertiary structure

d) Quaternary structure

91) The reaction in Galvanic Cell is

a) Spontaneous

b) nonspontaneous

c) Irreversible

d) endothermic

92) Which of the following isomerism is shown by alkynes?

a) Positional isomerism

b) Geometrical isomerism

c) Cis-trans isomerism

d) Functional group isomerism

93) How many electrons can an atom accommodate in L-shell

a) 2 b) 18 c) 8         d) 32

94) The amount of energy evolved during the formation of hydrogen molecule is

a) 436.45 KJ/mol

b) 444.45 J/mol

c) 436.45 J/mol

d) 444.45 KJ/Mol

95) obtained by Saturated Solution through Crystal are

a) Sedimentation b) Drying

c) Heating d) Cooling

96) Phenol gives electrophilic substitution reactions due to?

a) OH group b) Phenoxide ion

c) Benzene ring d) All of these

97) At the start of a reaction, Concentration of reactants decreases

a) Slowly b) At constant rate

c) rapidly d) exponentially

98) Knowledge obtain through thermodynamics is used to Explain which of the following property?

a) Boiling point b) Chemical bonding

c) Quantum study d) Physical properties

99) in IUPAC nomenclature, Carboxylic acids are named

a) Alkoxy acid b) Alkanoic acid

c) Alkyl carboxylic acid

d) Alkoxylate acid

100) Which of the following reaction of carbonyl system is used to distinguish between carbonyl system from alcohols?

a) Cyanohydrin formation

b) Bisulfite adduct formation

c) Haloform formation

d) None of these

101) Nonprotein part cofactor includes organic & metallic organic molecule & sometimes,

a) Vitamins b) DNA

c) Coenzyme d) None

102) According to modem theory of chemical bonding, atoms forms bond to

a) increase energy b) decrease energy

c) higher energy d) none of these

103) Which one of the following is an example of transition element?

a) Na b) Co c) Ba      d) Ra

104) The intermolecular forces brings the molecules close together and give them particular

a) chemical properties

b) physical properties

c) composition

d) nature

105) if a double bond is present between two carbons then this class of compounds in called as

a) Alkanes b) Alkynes

c) Carbonyl d) Alkenes

106) Drawing a graph between concentration change with time gives a

a) Straight line b) parabola

c) Curve d) Scattered graph

107) Kp=Ke (RT)^An , T stands for

a) Temperature b) Absolute Temperature

c) Critical Temperature d) All of these

108) The type of hybridization in diamond is a) spherical    b) sp2    c) sp3    d) sp-sp

109) According to _____ theory, atoms were the ultimate particles that cannot be divided


a) Bohr’s b) Rutherford’s

c) Dalton’s d) cannizzaro’s

110) if pressure is reduced to one half and temperature of a gas is doubled, what will be volume

a) reduced 4 times b) increased 4 times

c) remains same d) gets doubled

111) Calculate mass in grams of 8.694 moles of Ag2CO3

a) 1417.53g b) 2399.544g

c) 3456.78g d) 1231.98

112) d-block elements are called

a) coinage metals b) noble metats

c) transition metals d) alkali metals

113) The element caesium bears resemblance with

a) Ca b) Cr c) Both of the above

d) None of the above

114) During reduction of aldehydes with NaBH4, which of the following intermediate is formed?

a) Carbanion b) Carbocation

c) Carbene d) Alkoxide ion

115) Freezing point of acetic acid;

a) 16.6 Co b) 18° b) -02°C    d) 10oC

116) The bond b/w the two atoms is non polar, if the E.N difference is

a) 1.7 b) zero c) 1     d) 2

117) The speed of sound in a metal is approximately:

a) 1500 m/s b) 5000 m/s

c) 330 m/s d) 50 m/s

118) What will be the product of beta decay of C-14?

a) C14 b) N-14 c) O-14     d) Be-14

119) Which rays have highest ionizing power a) alpha    b) beta    c) gamma    d) white

120) For given applied voltage, what will happen if we increase frequency of the applied voltage?

a) eddy current loss will decrease

b) eddy current loss will increase

c) eddy current loss will remain unchanged

d) none of these

121) Which of the following is equivalent to a temperature -150C? 123K                             

a) 123K b) -123K

c) 423K d) -423 K

122) Work done by conservative force is

a) Reversible b) Non reversible

c) can be both d) none of them

123) The displacement between A and B is defined as:

a) change in position of an object from A to B

b) any distance between two points

c) longest distance from A to B

d) longest distance between two points

124) Which source is associated with a line emission spectrum

a) electric signal b) neon street signal

c) red traffic light d) signal

125) Watt-hour measures______

a) current b) electrical energy

c) power d) voltage

126) The angular displacement is taken to be positive when the rotation is

a) linear b) non-linear

c) clockwise d) anti-clockwise

127) If a pipe is dosed at one end and open at the other, the closed end is a:

a) antinode b) node

c) rarefaction d) crest

128) Heat reservoir is a ______ Temperature bath

a) Constant b) Variable

c) zero d) High

129) What is the maximum electron energy in neutron beta decay?

a) 783 eV b) 783 KeV

c) 783 GeV d) 783 Tev

130) If the peak voltage is 9V, calculate the peak to peak voltage.

a) 9V b) 18V c) 4.5V    d) 0V

131) The half life of a radioactive substance is 5 min. The amount of substance decayed in 20 min will be

a) 93.75% b) 6.25% c) 25%    d) 75%

132) Peak voltage in the output of half wave rectifier is 10V so dc component of output voltage is

a) 102 b) 10’2 c) 10/   d) 10

133) If a nucleus release gamma rays its mass become

a) double b) half

c) unchanged d) quarter

134) If a charged particle moves through a magnetic field perpendicular to it

a) both momentum and energy of particle change

b) momentum as well as energy are constant

c) energy is constant but momentum changes d) momentum is constant but energy changes

135) UV radiation is formed by bombarding gas molecules with

a) electron b) protons

c) alpha rays d) any of these

136) Blackbody shows a _______ spectra

a) continuous b) discrete

c) both a) and b) d) None of these

137) On a TS diagram which of the events have larger slope?

a) isobaric process b) Isochoric process

c) Isothermal process d) None of them

138) The radiotracers _______ the production of cancer cells

a) increase b) decrease

c) fix d) none of these

139) Under what conditions of density and pressure does a real gas approximate to an ideal gas?

a) density = high pressure = high

b) density = low pressure = high

c) density = high pressure = low

d) density = low pressure = low

140) What is the formula for centripetal acceleration?

a) a=v/t b) a=v/r

c) a=v^2/r d) none of these

141) A capacitor of capacitance C is connected with resistance R. The time constant of the circuit would be:

a) RC b) R/C c) e^RC     d) R+C

142) Horizontal velocity vs time grap for a project motion is  

a) varies linearly

b) follows a parabolic path

c) is constant d) is nonlinear

143) A constant force of F= (i-2j-3k) causes a displacement d = (2i – 5j + k), what will be the net work done if F in N and displacement is in meter

a) 15 J b) 9 J c) 8 J      d) 18 J

144) An immersion heater of 400 watts kept on for 5 hours will consume electrical power of

a) 2KWh b) 20KWh

c) 6KWh d) 12KWh

145) if a current of 5 Amperes flows through the conductor. The number of electrons per second will is

a) 1.6 x 10-19 b) 3.12 x 1019

c) 4 x 1019 d) 7.68 x 1020

146) Electric generator converts _____ to energy

a) electric, mechanical b) mechanical, electric

c) mechanical, potential

d) not enough information

147) Work done is said to be negative if force and displacement are

a) parallel b) perpendicular

c) anti parallel d) none of these

148) A variable force F =x is applied what will be the work done in moving the particle from X= 0 to 1

a) 2 J b) 1 J c) 05 J     d) 5 J

149) Solar spectra is a type of

a) continuous b) discrete

c) both a) and b) d) None of these

150) An oil filon water surface shows colors due to:

a) diffraction b) interference

c) dispersion d) polarization

151) in a double slit experiment the second order maximum occurs at Ө = 0.25°. The wavelength is 650 nm. Determine the slit separation

b) 0.30 mm c) 0.30 cm

c) 0.30 nm d) 0.30 m

152) In a stationary wave, the distance between two consecutive crests iS:

a) one wavelength b) 3/4 wavelength

c) 1/2 wavelength d) 3/2 wavelength

153) isothermal process can be defined as.

a) PV=constant b) PV=RT

c) P/V =constant d) P/V=nRT

154) A charge of 1μC is moving antiparallel to magnetic lines of force, then the magnetic force acting on charge is

a) 0 b) vB c) vB sin Ө    d) qvB

155) Force on a static charge q in uniform electric field E is

a) qE b) -qE c) qE^2    d) -qE^2

156) Is it possible to separate north pole only from bar magnet

a) yes b) no

c) in some cases it is possible d) none of these

157) Ten complete waves passes through a point in 2 seconds. if the wavelength is 20 cm, what is the speed of the wave?

a) 1 m/s b) 10 cm/s c) 2m/s   d) 40 cm/s

158) A car travels 30 m toward east, then it takes turn and travels 40 m towards west. It takes 50 seconds. Its average velocity is:

a) -10 m/s b) -1/5 m/s c) 7/5 m/s   d) -5m/s

159) The energy input to an engine is 4.00 times greater than the work it performs. What is its thermal efficiency?

a) 4.00 b) 1.00                  c) 0.25

d) impossible to determine

160) For ideal polyatomic gas molar specific heat is equal to

a) 24.9 J/mol.K b) 12.9 J/mol.K

c) 15 J/mol.K d) 16 J/mol.K

161) The electron is purely a ____ when free

a) particle nature b) wave nature

c) dual nature d) t transform to photon

162) In a rectifier, larger the value of shunt capacitor filter

a) larger the peak-to-peak value of ripple voltage

b) larger the peak current in the rectifying diode

c) longer the time that current pulse flows through the diode

d) smaller the dc voltage across the load

163) A first harmonic stationary sound wave is produced in the air of the cylinder, which is half filled with water. More water is added to the cylinder, now first harmonic stationary wave is produced with a different frequency. What is the change in frequency and the nature of displacement in air at the water surface?

a) nature of displacement = antinode change in frequency = decrease

b) nature of displacement = antinode change in frequency = increase

c) nature of displacement = node change in frequency = increase

d) nature of displacement = node change in frequency = decrease

164) Two equal and opposite charges separated by a small distance are said to constitute:

a) a magnetic dipole b) an electric dipole

c) a couple d) an anion

165) A position dependent force F= 7-2*x + 3*x^2 N act on a body of mass 2 kg and displaces it from x= 0 to x= 5, the work done in joule is

a) 70 b) 270 c) 35      d) 135

166) A resistance of 40 Ohms is attached to a circuit having current of 300 Amp, Find its voltage.

a) 12000 volts b) 15000 volts

c) 20000 volts d) 300 volts

167) I ________  a letter yesterday.

a) write b) wrote

c) written d) will write

168) The earth _______ (seem) to be moving. a) seem   b) seemed  c) seeming   d) seems

169) It _____ me a lot of money.

a) costs b) cost c) costed    d) is costing

170) I found the (A)/ two first chapters (B) /of the book (C)/ particularly interesting. (D) a) I found the                  b) two first chapters

b) of the book c) particularly interesting

171) Physics ______ difficult to understand.

a) were b) are c) is    d) have been

172) Choose the correct spelling of the word a) goas    b) gose    c) goes    d) gots

173) she is

a) shes b) shes’ c) she’s    d) sh’es

174) I _______ think bread is stale.

a) a b) an c) the    d) no article

175) “What are you doing here? “ I _______ TV

a) watching b) am watching

c) is watching d) watches

176) Genocide

a) murder of a faily member

b) extermination of an entire race or nation

c) assassination of a king d) self-destruction

177) Choose the correct spelling of the word a) servant                  b) servent

c) sarvant d) sarvent

177) My friends and I enjoy doing many of the same things. In that respect, we have a lot _____ .

a) in similar b) in particular

c) in common d) in comparison

179) Which tense would you use for talking about the area where you live?

a) Present b) past

c) future d) none of these

180) Choose the correct sentence.

a) I can’t see Tims car, there must have been an accident.

b) I can’t see Tim’s car, there must have been an accident. 1 can’t see Tims car there must have been an accident.

c) I can’t see Tims car there must have been an accident.

d) I can’t see Tims car; there must have been an accident.

181) Find the error?

a) They talked through the entire movie.

b) The plants in this garden does not require much water.

c) She always brings turkey sandwiches for lunch. d) No mistakes

182) He is a scientist (A)/ but out of (B)/ his three sons (C)/ neither have become scientists. (D)

a) He is a scientist a) but out of

c) his three sons

d) neither have become scientists

183) Both of you ______ the rules.

a) knows b) knew    c) no    d) new

184) Zohaib _____ (throw) the bag out of the window.

a) throw b) threw

c) throwing d) was throwing

185) Further research is needed to find out what side ………… this pill has on a person’s digestive system.

a) affects b) effects

c) defects d) suspects

186) _______ man is mortal.

a) A b) An c) The   D) No article

187) Statements : All film stars are playback singers. All film directors are film stars. Conclusions: I. All film directors are playback singers. II Some film stars are film directors.

a) Only conclusion II follows

b) Either I or It follows

c) Neither I nor II follows

d) Both I and II follow

188) Statement: The ratio is poverty is at alarming point in our country. I. The Government needs to take step for economic and development growth. II. The lower class area of people in our country needs to be supported as most of them lives hand to mouth.

a) Both of them follows

b) None of them follows

c) Only I follows d) Only b follows

189) Epicentre is related to

a) Cyclone b) Volcano

c) Earthquake d) Both A and B

190) Who won the Wimbledon Men’s Singles Tennis Title?

a) Roger Federer b) Novak Djokovic

c) Rafael Nadal d) Both A and B

191) In the following letter series, some of the letters are missing, which are given in that order as one of the alternatives below it. Choose the correct alternatives

a) cbcb b) bbcb c) cbbe    d) bcbc

192) Since Amna’s baby died at birth, she wanted another immediately. II. Amna abducted the infant and took it out of the hospital

Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.

Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect.

Both statements I and II are independent causes

Both statements I and II are the effects of independent cause.

194) Statement The availability of imported fruits has increased in the indigenous market and so the demand for indigenous fruits has been decreased. I. To help the indigenous producers of fruits, the Government should impose high import duty on these fruits, even if these are not of good quality. II. The fruit vendors should stop selling imported fruits. So that the demand for indigenous fruits would be increased.

a) Both of them follows

b) None of them follows

c) Only | follows d) Only Il follows

194) Chef: Restaurant

a) Doctor: Nurse b) Driver: Passenger

c) Teacher: Schools d) Writer: Editor

195) Statement The performance of most of the students in final exam of class X in the schools run by the government was excellent. Many teachers of government schools left the school and joined private schools.

a) Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.

b) Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect

c) Both the statements I and II are independent causes

d) Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes

196) The high school math department needs to appoint a new chairperson, which will be based on seniority. Ms. West has less seniority than Mr. Temple, but more than Ms. Brody. Mr. Rhodes has more seniority than Ms. West, but less than Mr. Temple. Mr. Temple doesn’t want the job. Who will be the new math department chairperson?

a) Mr. Rhodes b) Mr. Temple

c) Mr. West d) Mr. brody

197) Amino acids are arranged in proper sequence during protein synthesis according to the instruction transcribed on?

a) DNA b) RNA c) tRNA    d) mRNA

198) K.E of the liquids is directly proportional to__?

a) Pressure   b) Temperature

c) Mass   d) Nature

199) Limiting reactant controls the amount of _

a) reactant b) products

c) both A & B d) none of these

200) Which oxidation is possessed by all the elements of group III B?

a) 2 b) 3 c) 5    d) 7


201 nhi hai


202) The molecule of water has structure

a) cubic b) tetrahedral

c) trigonal d) hexagonal system

203) Tautomerism involves the transfer of_? a) Electron                               b) Carbon atom

c) Functional group d) H-atom

204) in a vacuum distillation the boiling point of glycerin is reduced to__?

a) 290°C b) 110°C c) 156°C    d) 220°C

205) Isotopes means addition of additional__ in same proton number

a) protons b) electrons

c) neutrons d) all of them

206) A circuit that adds positive or negative dc voltage to an input sine wave is called

a) Clamper b) clipper

c) diode clamp d) limiter

207) A device that consumes electrical energy in the external circuit of generator is known as

a) appliances b) machines

c) motors d) load

208) The half-life of a radioactive substance is 40 years. How long will it take to reduce to one fourth of its Original amount and what is the value of decay constant?

a) 40 year, 0.9173/year

b) 80 year, 0.0173 year

c) 90 year, 9.017/year d) none of these

209) Ethanol forms yellow crystal with iodine in the presence of

a) Zncl2 b) Cons H2S04 at 14.C

c) NaoH d) KoH

210) Photocell is similar to

a) photoelectric effect

a) compton effect

b) Photoluminescence c) none of these













       1.            C       2.            C       3.            D       4.            A
       5.            B       6.            B       7.            B       8.            D
       9.            C   10.            A   11.            D   12.            C
   13.            B   14.            A   15.            B   16.            C
   17.            D   18.            A   19.            D   20.            D
   21.            A   22.            C   23.            A   24.            B
   25.            B   26.            B   27.            D   28.            B
   29.            D   30.            C   31.            D   32.            D
   33.            D   34.            D   35.            D   36.            C
   37.            B   38.            A   39.            D   40.            C
   41.   42.            A   43.            D   44.            C
   45.            C   46.            C   47.            D   48.            D
   49.            C   50.            D   51.            D   52.            D
   53.            B   54.            B   55.            D   56.            D
   57.            D   58.            D   59.            D   60.            C
   61.            A   62.            D   63.            D   64.            D
   65.            A   66.            B   67.            D   68.            C
   69.            C   70.            C   71.            A   72.            D
   73.            A   74.            D   75.            A   76.            B
   77.            B   78.            C   79.            D   80.            C
   81.            A   82.            C   83.            A   84.            B
   85.            A   86.            B   87.            B   88.            C
   89.            C   90.            B   91.            A   92.            A
   93.            C   94.            C   95.            D   96.            C
   97.            C   98.            B   99.            B100.            B
101.            A102.            B103.            B104.            B
105.            D106.            C107.            B108.            C
109.            C110.            B111.            B112.            A
113.            D114.            D115.            A116.            B
117.            B118.            A119.            C120.            C
121.            A122.            A123.            A124.            B
125.            B126.            B127.            B128.            A
129.            B130.            B131.            A132.            C
133.            C134.            C135.            A136.            A
137.            C138.            B139.            D140.            C
141.            A142.            C143.            B144.            A
145.            B146.            B147.            C148.            C
149.            A150.            B151.            A152.            C
153.            A154.            A155.            A156.            B
157.            B158.            B159.            C160.            A
161.            C162.            C163.            C164.            B
165.            D166.            A167.            B168.            B
169.            B170.            B171.            C172.            C
173.            C174.            C175.            B176.            B
177.            A178.            C179.            A180.            D
181.            B182.            D183.            B184.            B
185.            B186.            D187.            D188.            A
189.            C190.            B191.            A192.            B
193.            B194.            C195.            D196.            A
197.            D198.            B199.            B200.            A
201.202.            B203.            D204.            D
205.            C206.            A207.            C208.            B
209.            B210.            A211.212.


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